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From "Are Poems Historical Acts?" by Geprge Watson in Contexts for Criticism by Keesey:

"The oddities of Thomas's diction exist only in relation to mid-twentieth-century usages outside his poems.  If we are anxious to pretend that poems could ever 'exist independently of the author's intentions,' we had better banish all idea of the norm" (32).

Although I do not completely buy the historical context argument, I do really love Watson's point here.  It is very true that in order to assess the uniqueness and style of an author, it is necessary to look at historical context.  Did that author always write in extended metaphors?  No?  Then why is it significant in this work?  Or possibly, other authors during a particular author's time mainly wrote free verse.  What would then be the significance of writing in the form of a Shakespearean sonnet?  Dr. Patterson brought this point up about Claude McKay who was an African American writer during the Harlem Renaissance.  She wanted to know what the significance was of him using a sonnet form for a poem about lynching.  It creates a completely different effect, that's for sure.

What do you think the reason is behind McKay choosing to write a poem about lynching in the form of a Shakespearean sonnet?

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2 Comments

Erica Gearhart said:

Although I'm sure sure how to answer your question since I never read this sonnet by McKay, I do think it is always interesting and important to take a look at the author's style, as well as words and meaning, especially when we take a look at how the style fits in with the time period.

You don't have to actually read the poem. (Don't worry though, I wouldn't have thought of this is Dr. Patterson hadn't said it to the class.) The reason is because sonnets are known for being about love. McKay creates a great irony when he makes his sonnets about things like slavery and lynching. It kind of shows that life is not as beautiful as the sonnet can sometimes depict!

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